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Home/ Thoughts/Q 118
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Martin Gamal
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Question
Martin Gamal
Asked: November 11, 20192019-11-11T02:00:31+02:00 2019-11-11T02:00:31+02:00In: Jobs & Education

Is this statement, “i see him last night” can be understood as “I saw him last night”?

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In my local language (Bahasa Indonesia) there are no verb-2 or past tense form as time tracker. So, I often forget to use the past form of verb when speaking english. I saw him last night (correct) I see him last night (incorrect) But i think both has the same meaning and are understandable, Isn’t it?

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    1. warysmoreno
      warysmoreno
      2020-01-10T10:52:00+02:00Added an answer on January 10, 2020 at 10:52 am

      i see him last night is very incorrect, because you can’t use a present tense to support something that has already happened. Therefore “i saw him last night is correct”

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    2. vnaml 2015
      vnaml 2015
      2020-02-11T13:32:30+02:00Added an answer on February 11, 2020 at 1:32 pm

      See is Present tense and Saw is a past tense that means “I saw him last night” is the correct one because here saw means that the action is completely finished.

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    4. Markoht Toby
      Markoht Toby Google SEO and SERP Xpert
      2018-04-19T02:01:15+02:00Added an answer on April 19, 2018 at 2:01 am

      You are correct that both are understandable.

      The only other possible everyday meaning I could think of would be ‘I see him [in my mind’s eye] last night’; that is, I am, at this very moment, imagining him last night. But it should almost always be clear from context which one is intended.

      ‘Correct’ doesn’t mean ‘understandable’, though. If I say ‘Me want have fooding’ it’s pretty clear what to understand from that, but it’s not anywhere near correct Standard English grammar. If you lived somewhere where you spoke a dialect of English in which this was acceptable grammar, however, then it would be correct for that dialect.

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    5. Shazia Naz
      Shazia Naz Graduated in commerce
      2020-04-17T14:37:10+02:00Added an answer on April 17, 2020 at 2:37 pm
      This thinking was edited.

      I saw him last night (Correct)
      I see him last night(absolutely wrong)
      because present and past can not happen at a time.

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    6. Bakoma Hanricharms
      Bakoma Hanricharms
      2020-04-07T20:14:28+02:00Added an answer on April 7, 2020 at 8:14 pm

      Since as it is past some thing it must be understood as I saw him last night these is the correct way of using the statement

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    7. Barry Bodhi
      Barry Bodhi Software Developer at Meiu Dev.
      2018-04-19T02:01:03+02:00Added an answer on April 19, 2018 at 2:01 am

      There is a certain poetic sense in which “I see” works. “I see him last night in my dreams” although not technically correct. However, generally speaking “I saw” is the right usage for past events. Much prose writing in English novels is in the present tense although they are about past events. The author superimposes himself however on the situation as if it were the present.

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    8. James Flynn
      James Flynn Business and Stock Investor
      2018-04-19T02:01:09+02:00Added an answer on April 19, 2018 at 2:01 am

      No, ‘I see him last night’ is always incorrect and will be only just barely understandable. It is a very serious and basic error, and it will be tiring for a native speaker to converse with someone who speaks like this, because they will constantly have to be remembering what the person really means. It will not be ‘immediately obvious without thinking about it’.

      Someone just asked this question recently, and I replied, saying that ‘I see him last night’ is never correct. That is exactly what i meant.

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    9. Darcy
      Darcy
      2020-01-17T11:49:31+02:00Added an answer on January 17, 2020 at 11:49 am

      I saw him last night is incorrect but many people struggle with getting their grammar right, I don’t judge

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    10. John Nate
      John Nate
      2018-04-19T02:00:52+02:00Added an answer on April 19, 2018 at 2:00 am

      Yes, I understand it. I hear a lot of this incorrect grammar from my wife. I would expect that the person that spoke this was possibly Chinese. In Chinese there are no tenses or plurals. No he or she pronouns. The context tells all. So it might have been a direct translation from Chinese.

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      • Mystikal ET0016
        Mystikal ET0016 Spiritual Monk and Mythologist
        2019-12-07T04:51:39+02:00Replied to answer on December 7, 2019 at 4:51 am

        Umm 🙂 kinda funny tho haha.

        I never heard of this before, I’m glad Thinkle is opening my mind into new perspectives. Cheers

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